Well then you don't know much about the topic.
SARMS-4 is anabolic (i.e. it stimulates skeletal muscle hypertrophy) but it is not an AAS, it is a SARM i.e. Selective Androgen Receptor Modulator. SARM are ligands for the AR that are tissue selective, they are mainly if not entirely anabolic.
If you think that SARM = AAS then you have disqualified yourself from having an opinion on the topic.
For your education here is a random selection of full papers on SARM and S-4:
[1],
[2],
[3],
[4]
If your understanding of AAS is based on
broscience then you will have a hard time grasping the significance and notion of SARM. The "holy grail" of AAS chemistry is the synthesis of a an anabolic compound with no androgenic effects. This has been the quest of chemists and pharamcaologists (that specialise in this area) for decades. The first generation of SARM have accomplished this goal to varying extents. S-4 has some androgenic effects but it is small compared to any AAS. There are SARM with no apparent androgenic effect but these have not reached the same level of clinical validation that S-4 has.
The big deal about SARMs, the reason why GTx has sunk millions into Ostarine to get it to clinical trial, is because Ostarine is an effective SARM i.e. it is anabolic whilst being minimally androgenic and hence very tissue selective and hence not HPTA disruptive. I have linked to reports from the clinical trials in my other posts. That you have unquestioningly placed it into the same category as AAS on the basis of
brotelligence means that you are operating from within a flawed and conceptually impoverished
broscientific framework and that you don't fully appreciate the limitations of your framework.
Why instead didn't you challenge me with evidence that S-4 is suppresive of HPTA? Wouldn't that have been a more diligent and less presumptuous approach? The search for such evidence would have lead to your self-education on the topic and it would have also ruptured your broscientific framework.