Now this may be a stupid question but something I’ve never understood
Why is prostate cancer vastly more prevalent in older men typically when their test levels have been the lowest they’ve been pretty much all their lives, if its testosterone driven?
Wouldn’t that necessitate that it should be a young man’s disease as they’re brimming with test ?
Why is prostate cancer vastly more prevalent in older men typically when their test levels have been the lowest they’ve been pretty much all their lives, if its testosterone driven?
Wouldn’t that necessitate that it should be a young man’s disease as they’re brimming with test ?